Is the business now not worth £1.1m as we are dealing with 11 equal shares of £100k, or am I having a senior moment.
You clearly didn't read my post properly.
Using your example, there were initially 10 shares worth £100k each.
So business is worth £1m,
If you pitch for £100k for 10%, this will be the 11th £100k of the company,
IF THE DEAL IS AGREED, AND AFTER THE NEW CASH INJECTION, the business will be worth £1.1m.
In this case, you will be giving the dragon more equity that they should get as they now own 10% of a company that is worth £110k now, so by right they should have to invest £110k (10% x £1.1m) for them to own 10% of the business but they only invest £100k for that.
But if you were to ask them to pay for £110k for 10% of the business at the start, they will say that you are valuing your company at £110k,
BEFORE their cash is in.
To sum up:
Company is worth £1m
BEFORE the investment
Company is worth £1.1m
AFTER the investment
But they always say that the pitcher valuate the company at the value
AFTER the investment before the deal is even agreed.
What happens to the cash after the transaction is irrelevant to the pre-transaction valuation. Giving 50% of the business for £100,000 values the business at £200,000.
After the transaction has been completed, the company will have a different valuation if the cash is left in or taken out. But of course, that's a fictional situation, the anticipated cash investment is factored into the pitchers offer.
Well, if it is like what you have said that the anticipated cash investment is factored into the pitchers offer, then their valuation logic will make sense.
That's a somewhat logical answer I can accept but it seems to me like they were talking about the valuation without the anticipated cash factored in.
If the anticipated cash investment is indeed factored in, this could be the problem solver of this thread.