- Original Poster
- #1
Occasionally, I sell a few items on Ebay's GSP system. In most cases, the system works pretty normally - you get told a sale has happened, and the shipping address is the Pitney Bowles site where the goods are then distributed abroad. Normally ebay tell you the item has sold at the usual price, and I enter the sales at the VAT inclusive figure as with all my sales. However, every now and then, the price paid bit the overseas customer is the VAT-exclusive figure, and that's what ebay pay to me. I always double check now because the VAT-less and VAT-inclusive sales don't actually explain why this happens. Even worse, it takes a bit of detective work to even discover what country the buyer is in. When Ebay pay me the VAT-exclusive figure, I do not add VAT to the invoice.
Does anyone know why ebay charge/not charge VAT in this way? I've not yet sold enough to have a list of countries or other reasons, and it's confusing. I've been happy that ebay know best, and just charge/not charge to match their payment to me. Everything goes to the same address. It just feels a bit wrong to not add VAT when I don't know why I'm doing it, just trusting ebay to have it correct?
I don't think we've talked about this before?
Does anyone know why ebay charge/not charge VAT in this way? I've not yet sold enough to have a list of countries or other reasons, and it's confusing. I've been happy that ebay know best, and just charge/not charge to match their payment to me. Everything goes to the same address. It just feels a bit wrong to not add VAT when I don't know why I'm doing it, just trusting ebay to have it correct?
I don't think we've talked about this before?
