- Original Poster
- #1
Hi guys, long story short. I've got an employee who has repeatedly failed to show for work.
He's worked with me for 14 months. Went away at Christmas for 3 weeks and then failed to come back to work. This lasted for 10 days. I had 1 or 2 texts from him, informing me he had an infection, but no update and little communication.
A few weeks ago this happened again. A text telling me he was sick and that he'd be in work late. He failed to show later that day and returned the next day.
Then then this week. He text me on Thursday morning saying he had the runs and he had to get off the tube on the way to work. I asked for an update later that day and got no response. He failed to show for work the next day and didn't communicate anything.
I then had a text from an ex-employee on Saturday, informing me that he was able for work, as this AWOL employee, had been in contact with him to tell him that he'd left my company.
I've fired the employee for gross misconduct. He's had a huge effect on the business, by repeatedly not turning up to work. I've informed him that his March salary will be withheld, to be used to pay for the damages caused by his inability to turn up for work.
Am I legally entitled to do this. I gave him repeated warnings (albeit verbally), and tried every way possible to contact him during these absences.
He's threatened me with legal action. I'd like to know which of us is in the correct legal position.
Thanks!
He's worked with me for 14 months. Went away at Christmas for 3 weeks and then failed to come back to work. This lasted for 10 days. I had 1 or 2 texts from him, informing me he had an infection, but no update and little communication.
A few weeks ago this happened again. A text telling me he was sick and that he'd be in work late. He failed to show later that day and returned the next day.
Then then this week. He text me on Thursday morning saying he had the runs and he had to get off the tube on the way to work. I asked for an update later that day and got no response. He failed to show for work the next day and didn't communicate anything.
I then had a text from an ex-employee on Saturday, informing me that he was able for work, as this AWOL employee, had been in contact with him to tell him that he'd left my company.
I've fired the employee for gross misconduct. He's had a huge effect on the business, by repeatedly not turning up to work. I've informed him that his March salary will be withheld, to be used to pay for the damages caused by his inability to turn up for work.
Am I legally entitled to do this. I gave him repeated warnings (albeit verbally), and tried every way possible to contact him during these absences.
He's threatened me with legal action. I'd like to know which of us is in the correct legal position.
Thanks!
