Thanks for the considered reply
Yes, that is how I read it as well. Both HSBC and Co-operative and quite specific in their application forms that you use group turnover for the calculations
This is the bit I'm definitely very unsure of, but I agree it seems to run entirely counter to the purpose of a limited company. My take though is that under the Santander definition, you can't share the loan across the group companies. If you don't have a parent company, then one company can apply for one loan, based on the combined turnover of all companies in the group. If company A takes the loan, then company A is liable for the loan. Company B won't see the money, or the liability. I can't see how else it could possibly work. Even though the end point is a strange place.
No-one else I can find, including British Business Bank, has provided an alternative definition. They just haven't provided a definition at all. Ultimately, I think getting an answer on that question from HSBC is my only real way forward, if they will give one.
Me neither, hence wanting to get my ducks in a row on what I do. Ultimately though, without an authority to turn to for a definite answer, I suspect I'm going to have to gather what information I can from public sources, document it all and deal with it as honestly as I can based on that information. If that leads to an enquiry then I just make my case at that point.
I'm pretty sure they would be, as whilst they were set up for different purposes and in a former life, different share ownerships, they have at various times undertaken very similar work. As with all these things though, I'm sure an argument could be attempted either way. My feeling though is that they would be considered the same.