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Have you seen instances where a landlord’s informal approach to rent collection led to problems later?Usually there is no need to demand the rent (bc tenant gives a covenant to pay ), so you don’t have to invoice at all.
Maybe that would give the accountants a headache, but I wouldn’t risk varying the lease terms by conduct by giving any kind of formality to it. Arguably a formal demand consistently given could make the rent non-payable if one day there is no demand.
Would be interested if any accountants could comment on how this would be dealt with without vouchers. Or if market practice is in fact to invoice
I’m not sure why OP is invoicing the tenant for something they’ve agreed to pay no matter what.
Is it a VAT invoice as Scalloway mentioned?
Yes it is a VAT invoice. Even if not registered, I think it makes sense to invoice regardless from an accounting perspective for the records of both parties, even if it was not technically required.
In regards to the OP, check the lease and what terms are on there. Hopefully the lease states when payments are due and maybe they can move to setting up a standing order