- Original Poster
- #1
I recall reading a BBC article in Q1 2021 which said that a consortium of international investors agreed to purchase Edinburgh Woollen Mill, Ponden Homes and Bonmarché from Philip Day, but that Day would loan the group the funds they needed to facilitate the acquisition.
Why do sellers agree to offer the buyers the capital they need for the deal? Are they just hoping that, if the buyer defaults on the loan, they can take control of the business back while cashing the interest payments, and if the company files for administration, as a major creditor, they can maximise their claims on the company's assets?
Or could it be that they can't raise enough capital to sell their stake in the business, so might maintain a minority stake in the business (I think this might have somewhat been the case with Walmart and Asda, as they haven't completely divested from the business, although I don't think they resorted to seller finance) by lending capital to the buyer to facilitate a majority takeover?
Are they hoping that you can buy them out over time with incoming revenues?
Are the interest payments tax deductible and that's why they do it?
Why do sellers agree to offer the buyers the capital they need for the deal? Are they just hoping that, if the buyer defaults on the loan, they can take control of the business back while cashing the interest payments, and if the company files for administration, as a major creditor, they can maximise their claims on the company's assets?
Or could it be that they can't raise enough capital to sell their stake in the business, so might maintain a minority stake in the business (I think this might have somewhat been the case with Walmart and Asda, as they haven't completely divested from the business, although I don't think they resorted to seller finance) by lending capital to the buyer to facilitate a majority takeover?
Are they hoping that you can buy them out over time with incoming revenues?
Are the interest payments tax deductible and that's why they do it?
