- Original Poster
- #1
Hi, if I give shares valued at £ 50k to an employee/director I assume they have to pay the income tax etc on the BIK. When they come to sell the shares at a later date, are they valued as having been procured at £ 0 or £ 50k? Ie, do they have to pay the tax twice? Once as income tax, then once again as a capital gain? Thanks!
