- Original Poster
- #1
Hi all,
We’re currently considering selling our company, and one of the interested parties is both a supplier and an investor. Their offer is significantly below what we believe the business is worth.
We're exploring the idea of selling up to 70% of the company instead — potentially to another factory (to secure a £4 million per year supply contract) or to a DTC brand that sees value in what we’ve built.
From my understanding, as long as we sell less than 50%, the investor's preferred share rights wouldn’t be triggered, and I would retain the remaining shares and continue as CEO.
I have a specific clause in our Shareholders' Agreement that I believe supports this, but I’d really appreciate it if someone could confirm:
If we sell less than 50% of the company, are we correct in thinking that the preferred shares wouldn't become payable to the investor, and that I’d be able to retain the proceeds from the sale (i.e. the wholesale value)?
Thanks in advance for any insights or experience anyone can share!
Sorry im new to this
A ‘Share Sale’ which triggers proceeds being distributed as set out at 3.2 below is broadly a sale of shares
(in one transaction or a series of transactions) resulting in the buyer acquiring an interest in shares
constituting more than 50% of voting rights attached to all shares (and holders of Ordinary Shares have
one vote per Ordinary Share and holders of Preferred Shares have the number of votes they would have
had if their Preferred Shares had been converted to C Shares).
We’re currently considering selling our company, and one of the interested parties is both a supplier and an investor. Their offer is significantly below what we believe the business is worth.
We're exploring the idea of selling up to 70% of the company instead — potentially to another factory (to secure a £4 million per year supply contract) or to a DTC brand that sees value in what we’ve built.
From my understanding, as long as we sell less than 50%, the investor's preferred share rights wouldn’t be triggered, and I would retain the remaining shares and continue as CEO.
I have a specific clause in our Shareholders' Agreement that I believe supports this, but I’d really appreciate it if someone could confirm:
If we sell less than 50% of the company, are we correct in thinking that the preferred shares wouldn't become payable to the investor, and that I’d be able to retain the proceeds from the sale (i.e. the wholesale value)?
Thanks in advance for any insights or experience anyone can share!
Sorry im new to this
A ‘Share Sale’ which triggers proceeds being distributed as set out at 3.2 below is broadly a sale of shares
(in one transaction or a series of transactions) resulting in the buyer acquiring an interest in shares
constituting more than 50% of voting rights attached to all shares (and holders of Ordinary Shares have
one vote per Ordinary Share and holders of Preferred Shares have the number of votes they would have
had if their Preferred Shares had been converted to C Shares).