- Original Poster
- #1
Hello.
We moved 2 months ago into empty shop and the shop is currently under refurbishment.
I would like to apply for some reliefs such as small relief and retail relief but council said we cannot apply for these reliefs before trading date.
So we tried to apply for empty property relief but the shop has been empty since 2018 so that council said we should pay full amount of the rates.
My question about categorizing ‘occupied’ and ‘unoccupied’ properties is not solved yet.
I was trying to understand why physically occupied property is categorised to ‘unoccupied property’ when doing refurbishment and searched to get more information but found below.
This is from one of the legal case about ‘occupying empty property: business rates.
Wanted to share here but cannot post with the link.
From the legal case, it was found that there are four necessary ingredients that needed to exist to establish rateable occupation. The same natures are found when it comes to occupation of a property for business tax purpose. These are:
I believe that I satisfy the conditions for occupation even for the period of refurbishment.
I suppose it will be different when an owner run refurbishment before letting the property as it will be considered that he is running refurbishment of an empty property.
However, in my case, I got a right to occupy the property through the lease agreement and then have physically occupied the property and running refurbishment. It won't be the same as an owner runs refurbishment an empty property. As there’s occupancy happened first in my case.
Unfortunately, I couldn’t find the availability of public access to the business to create some revenue in definition of for rateable occupation/occupancy and this makes me really confused when this nature is applied to classify property as ‘unoccupied’
I acknowledge and appreciate your sympathy and understanding on my frustration about the full amount of business rate bill without application of the relief for almost two months. However, it’s still too harsh for a start-up business to pay a full amount of business rate even when it qualifies for some relief.
Could you please take a look at this so that I could be qualified for available reliefs from the lease start date?
Thank you.
We moved 2 months ago into empty shop and the shop is currently under refurbishment.
I would like to apply for some reliefs such as small relief and retail relief but council said we cannot apply for these reliefs before trading date.
So we tried to apply for empty property relief but the shop has been empty since 2018 so that council said we should pay full amount of the rates.
My question about categorizing ‘occupied’ and ‘unoccupied’ properties is not solved yet.
I was trying to understand why physically occupied property is categorised to ‘unoccupied property’ when doing refurbishment and searched to get more information but found below.
This is from one of the legal case about ‘occupying empty property: business rates.
Wanted to share here but cannot post with the link.
From the legal case, it was found that there are four necessary ingredients that needed to exist to establish rateable occupation. The same natures are found when it comes to occupation of a property for business tax purpose. These are:
- actual occupation
- exclusivity for the possessor's purposes
- possession for some value or benefit to the possessor, and
- occupation that was not transient.
I believe that I satisfy the conditions for occupation even for the period of refurbishment.
I suppose it will be different when an owner run refurbishment before letting the property as it will be considered that he is running refurbishment of an empty property.
However, in my case, I got a right to occupy the property through the lease agreement and then have physically occupied the property and running refurbishment. It won't be the same as an owner runs refurbishment an empty property. As there’s occupancy happened first in my case.
Unfortunately, I couldn’t find the availability of public access to the business to create some revenue in definition of for rateable occupation/occupancy and this makes me really confused when this nature is applied to classify property as ‘unoccupied’
I acknowledge and appreciate your sympathy and understanding on my frustration about the full amount of business rate bill without application of the relief for almost two months. However, it’s still too harsh for a start-up business to pay a full amount of business rate even when it qualifies for some relief.
Could you please take a look at this so that I could be qualified for available reliefs from the lease start date?
Thank you.
