Im looking for advice on liquidation process.
Liquidator is asking to repay dividends from 2 year period for total of 67k.
While taking the dividends balance sheet was negative, had about 9k debt to hmrc.
At that time I wasnt aware this is considered as illegal dividend. Each time the divident was taken there was still enough in the bank to cover the hmrc debt..
Could i argue that the divident was taken in good faith?
What are my options now?
What will happen to the tax I paid on dividens?
I ask the liquidator for advice but they said they cant advice and ask me to propose the sum I can repay if I cant afford the 67k.
Would appreciate any input on the situation
There are a lot of unknowns here. Taking dividends is a rather technical area and although there can be some debate as to whether or not they are treated as a matter of strict liability, generally a director is taken to know the facts, even if they do not know the law. So a good faith argument *might* be an uphill struggle. Matters can only be put in the most general terms.
Money in the bank is not typically the same thing as 'distributable reserves', which is needed for a dividend.
To draw a dividend, there are usually a number of essential ingredients needed to stir into the pot:
1. Were they drawn with reference to historic 'relevant accounts' that showed a true and fair view?
2. Did those 'relevant accounts' have sufficient distributable reserves in each period to enable the hoovering up of each of the dividends in the 2 years totalling £67k.
3. Were the dividends formally 'declared' in accordance with the Articles?
4. Were there any distributable reserves available for any of the £67k claimed?
It is *possible* a case like
Re Marini Ltd v Dickenson) [2003] EWHC 334 *might* warrant consideration. In that case what lawfully could have been taken as a dividend provided some relief to a director even though the dividend itself might not have been lawful. The point is, there can be a difference between what is technically an unlawful dividend and the relief that a Court will afford the liquidator. The two are not necessarily the same.
There are other matters to take into account, such as for example only, how the case of the liquidator has been pleaded. Is it pleaded as a misfeasance claim, an unlawful dividend claim or a combination of the two?
Please take note of the disclaimer in my sign off area. No liability is accepted for reliance on this post. No reliance upon it should be placed. This is for information purposes only.
I would urge you to consider speaking to an experienced insolvency professional adviser if you consider you have a case to dispute matters whilst fleshing out all the pertinent facts of your case for such a person to consider in detail.
All the best.