- Original Poster
- #1
We are a U.K. based company registered for VAT. A US based company, registered in the US, has issued us an invoice for supply of services and has included VAT on the agreed cost therefore upping the bill payable by 20%. The US company states that we can reclaim the VAT so no difference.
I do not think that a US company can charge VAT and certainly will not remit the "VAT". Therefore on our side it stands that we cannot recover the "VAT" element. I think that the US company can include its own sales tax which it should remit and we just pay the total invoice.
Is this correct, or does HMRC expect that the US company (or us in a rule similar to reverse charge) expect us to account somehow for this transaction. I think no.
I know there are different rules for EU suppliers but this is not relevant.
I do not think that a US company can charge VAT and certainly will not remit the "VAT". Therefore on our side it stands that we cannot recover the "VAT" element. I think that the US company can include its own sales tax which it should remit and we just pay the total invoice.
Is this correct, or does HMRC expect that the US company (or us in a rule similar to reverse charge) expect us to account somehow for this transaction. I think no.
I know there are different rules for EU suppliers but this is not relevant.
