Valid representation vs unanimity

Matt21

Free Member
Aug 5, 2015
12
0
Hi,

I'm one of three directors of a UK limited, set up in 2014, with the model articles of association.

I've just moved to Germany, and today my tax advisor has asked me the following question:

"Can each of you validly represent the Ltd. on his own towards third parties or do decisions require unanimity ?"

In practice we each exercise quite a lot of independence, but from a legal standpoint, I'm not sure what the answer is.

Can anybody help me work this out?
 
Smokey the Bear says "Only YOU can prevent forest fires!"

Similarly, only you know the answer to that question - well, at least, that is what should be the case! If it is not in your articles of association, I suggest you guys sort that question out fairly quickly!
 
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Matt21

Free Member
Aug 5, 2015
12
0
Thanks @The Byre, @Chris Ashdown.

Answering @Chris Ashdown 's question:
  • Legally I don't know (I'm not that familiar with the model articles, and it's quite hard to digest). I know in practice I would run a large purchase by them first. Whereas if it was some small software subscription, less than £100 pcm, I would probably not feel the need to mention it.
  • All three directors are shareholders and have a £1 share each, so 33.3333'% shares. Does this drop a clue?
 
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