- Original Poster
- #1
Hello,
I wondered if any kind members more enlightened than I with regards to the small claims court might kindly help with a couple of questions.
I'm sorry for the vagueness of my questions, but clearly I can't spell it all out.
We're taking a customer to court who didn't pay their bills. This is we think quite straightforward.
They've counterclaimed. Their claim is a load of cobblers.
In my laymans mind I understand it that the counterclaim has to be for direct losses.
So for example, it should be: before they used us their turnover was £x, and now it's less than £x, so their losses are the difference.
However, they haven't provided any sales figures. Which is very odd if they have indeed suffered loss.
Instead they've said: Before they used us they used another company to provide the same service and over 12 months spent £Y with them.
Since they didn't pay our bills and fell out with us they've used the same company again and spent £Z with them.
In between they spent £P money on advertising.
Their claim for losses are those fees above i.e. £Z+£Y+£P.
Surely they're normal business expenses, not losses?
Am I understanding this correctly, and can the judge just strike that counterclaim out for that reason - well that and that they have provided no evidence just statements like "I believe they might have," "I think it's possible they could have," etc.
I.e. a load of hearsay.
Secondly, the defendant in their initial allocation questionnaire, I guess to justify the size of the counterclaim, claimed they'd spent £S money with their previous company.
They obviously signed this as a statement of truth.
Now they've submitted a proper counterclaim it's clear they have spent nowhere near that amount of money at all.
Does the fact they've submitted it as truth count against them when it's clearly untrue?
Thanks in advance for any help.
I wondered if any kind members more enlightened than I with regards to the small claims court might kindly help with a couple of questions.
I'm sorry for the vagueness of my questions, but clearly I can't spell it all out.
We're taking a customer to court who didn't pay their bills. This is we think quite straightforward.
They've counterclaimed. Their claim is a load of cobblers.
In my laymans mind I understand it that the counterclaim has to be for direct losses.
So for example, it should be: before they used us their turnover was £x, and now it's less than £x, so their losses are the difference.
However, they haven't provided any sales figures. Which is very odd if they have indeed suffered loss.
Instead they've said: Before they used us they used another company to provide the same service and over 12 months spent £Y with them.
Since they didn't pay our bills and fell out with us they've used the same company again and spent £Z with them.
In between they spent £P money on advertising.
Their claim for losses are those fees above i.e. £Z+£Y+£P.
Surely they're normal business expenses, not losses?
Am I understanding this correctly, and can the judge just strike that counterclaim out for that reason - well that and that they have provided no evidence just statements like "I believe they might have," "I think it's possible they could have," etc.
I.e. a load of hearsay.
Secondly, the defendant in their initial allocation questionnaire, I guess to justify the size of the counterclaim, claimed they'd spent £S money with their previous company.
They obviously signed this as a statement of truth.
Now they've submitted a proper counterclaim it's clear they have spent nowhere near that amount of money at all.
Does the fact they've submitted it as truth count against them when it's clearly untrue?
Thanks in advance for any help.
