- Original Poster
- #1
If I am sole shareholder in a ltd company that owns a house (rented to tenants), is that house 'used against me' for the purpose of calculating SDLT (the 3% surcharge on second homes)? i.e. Is that house still classed as 'my' house?
One broker believes it is, and said that in a previous case it was used against the purchaser because he had given a personal guarantee on the mortgage via the ltd company. I don't know how correct that decision was.
In my case the house is owned by the ltd company mortgage free, but it wouldn't be crazy to think HMRC would still view this as 'my' house would it? The ltd co is a separate entity, but I own the entity that owns the house!
I haven't found a house yet, so haven't appointed a solicitor yet, so can't ask them. And in fact the answer could influence whether/what I am going to buy. So I can't ask the solicitor until I am further down the process of buying, but can't get further down the process until I have an answer to the question!
Hoping someone here has been through this already and can relay their experience.
Cheers
One broker believes it is, and said that in a previous case it was used against the purchaser because he had given a personal guarantee on the mortgage via the ltd company. I don't know how correct that decision was.
In my case the house is owned by the ltd company mortgage free, but it wouldn't be crazy to think HMRC would still view this as 'my' house would it? The ltd co is a separate entity, but I own the entity that owns the house!
I haven't found a house yet, so haven't appointed a solicitor yet, so can't ask them. And in fact the answer could influence whether/what I am going to buy. So I can't ask the solicitor until I am further down the process of buying, but can't get further down the process until I have an answer to the question!
Hoping someone here has been through this already and can relay their experience.
Cheers