- Original Poster
- #1
Hi,
first of all - sorry if that has already been explained but it seems I cannot find an answer to my question anywhere in the Internet
I provide translations, own a company and have a EU VAT number - so far everything has been quite obvious - I have been issuing invoices with the "reverse charge" formula since my clients are usually VAT registered (therefore have a VAT EU number).
However, recently I have provided translations to a LTD company based in Scotland, which is not VAT registered. And it says I should add VAT to the invoice and it cannot accept an invoice with N/A VAT and the "reverse charge" formula.
My accountant (my company is registered in Poland) says otherwise - emphasising that the "reverse charge" applies here - and that the service - according to the EU rules - is performed at the purchaser's location (so Scotland in this case). And I am leaning towards his position.
My Scotland-based client says that since it is not VAT registered, it should not be treated as a company (so our relation is not B2B) but as an individual (so B2C service) and hence the VAT should be added. But actually it is a company - LTD - with a Scottish registration number.
The service has been provided, there are no problems with the amount to be paid etc - there is just the issue of the invoice's format. And they said that the EU would make life easier))
Any help much appreciated
first of all - sorry if that has already been explained but it seems I cannot find an answer to my question anywhere in the Internet
I provide translations, own a company and have a EU VAT number - so far everything has been quite obvious - I have been issuing invoices with the "reverse charge" formula since my clients are usually VAT registered (therefore have a VAT EU number).
However, recently I have provided translations to a LTD company based in Scotland, which is not VAT registered. And it says I should add VAT to the invoice and it cannot accept an invoice with N/A VAT and the "reverse charge" formula.
My accountant (my company is registered in Poland) says otherwise - emphasising that the "reverse charge" applies here - and that the service - according to the EU rules - is performed at the purchaser's location (so Scotland in this case). And I am leaning towards his position.
My Scotland-based client says that since it is not VAT registered, it should not be treated as a company (so our relation is not B2B) but as an individual (so B2C service) and hence the VAT should be added. But actually it is a company - LTD - with a Scottish registration number.
The service has been provided, there are no problems with the amount to be paid etc - there is just the issue of the invoice's format. And they said that the EU would make life easier
))Any help much appreciated
