A
aubrey_fairlop
- Original Poster
- #1
Hello everyone, I have some specific question that I have not been able to find answers to and I hope someone can help.
I am preparing to send a Letter before Action (LBA) to a business associate of mine, and I want to obey the Pre-Action Protocol in order to ensure that should it progress to a court claim via moneyclaim.gov.uk that it not be thrown out for failure to do so.
I am owed £2,000 by the client for an invoice that was delivered in October 2018. The goods were collected prior to issuing the invoice. They acknowledged receipt of the invoice, and have repeatedly promised to pay but delayed - 9 times over 6 months - all over email or archived text messaging (these documents have all been archived and saved for reference).
I have not previously threatened legal action.
Can I make a claim now with moneyclaim.gov.uk without contacting them again? This has been suggested to me...
Or am I required to send an LBA before filing the claim with the courts?
If so when I issue the LBA:
- Is it valid if I send via email? I will copy a third party business associate of theirs on the email.
- Or must I also send via registered signed-for post?
- Pre-Action Protocol ( justice[.]gov[.]uk/courts/procedure-rules/civil/rules/pd_pre-action_conduct ) Implies that I need to allow fourteen days after sending the LBA and before filing the claim. Is that true? I have read several times on this forum that terms of seven days, or even less are valid to demand a reply or to settle the outstanding invoice, before filing a claim with the court. They have now had 6 months to 'reply' is it still necessary to allow them fourteen days? Or have I met Pre Action Protocol on this term already?
- As far as I know the client is a sole-trader individual and the address they provided for the invoice was a home address. I invoiced them as an individual but the commissioned goods were then sold-on under a company name which as far as I know is not registered LTD with Companies House, and she is styling herself as a business rather than actually trading as a business. Is it necessary to know this information before filing with moneyclaim.gov.uk?
Finally, can someone explain to me the difference between a filing a court claim with moneyclaim.gov.uk and a Statutory Demand for Payment?
Is there anything I should know besides the obvious about Pre-Action Protocol?
I sincerely appreciate any advice you can provide. Because the amount is so small at £2,000 I am not able to approach any law firm or lawyer about help in this matter because their commission will be negligible and their fees unworkable in relation to that amount.
Thank you,
Aubrey
I am preparing to send a Letter before Action (LBA) to a business associate of mine, and I want to obey the Pre-Action Protocol in order to ensure that should it progress to a court claim via moneyclaim.gov.uk that it not be thrown out for failure to do so.
I am owed £2,000 by the client for an invoice that was delivered in October 2018. The goods were collected prior to issuing the invoice. They acknowledged receipt of the invoice, and have repeatedly promised to pay but delayed - 9 times over 6 months - all over email or archived text messaging (these documents have all been archived and saved for reference).
I have not previously threatened legal action.
Can I make a claim now with moneyclaim.gov.uk without contacting them again? This has been suggested to me...
Or am I required to send an LBA before filing the claim with the courts?
If so when I issue the LBA:
- Is it valid if I send via email? I will copy a third party business associate of theirs on the email.
- Or must I also send via registered signed-for post?
- Pre-Action Protocol ( justice[.]gov[.]uk/courts/procedure-rules/civil/rules/pd_pre-action_conduct ) Implies that I need to allow fourteen days after sending the LBA and before filing the claim. Is that true? I have read several times on this forum that terms of seven days, or even less are valid to demand a reply or to settle the outstanding invoice, before filing a claim with the court. They have now had 6 months to 'reply' is it still necessary to allow them fourteen days? Or have I met Pre Action Protocol on this term already?
- As far as I know the client is a sole-trader individual and the address they provided for the invoice was a home address. I invoiced them as an individual but the commissioned goods were then sold-on under a company name which as far as I know is not registered LTD with Companies House, and she is styling herself as a business rather than actually trading as a business. Is it necessary to know this information before filing with moneyclaim.gov.uk?
Finally, can someone explain to me the difference between a filing a court claim with moneyclaim.gov.uk and a Statutory Demand for Payment?
Is there anything I should know besides the obvious about Pre-Action Protocol?
I sincerely appreciate any advice you can provide. Because the amount is so small at £2,000 I am not able to approach any law firm or lawyer about help in this matter because their commission will be negligible and their fees unworkable in relation to that amount.
Thank you,
Aubrey
