- Original Poster
- #1
Hi
Can someone please answer a question for me?
My partner (not married) and I have recently separated, I am a director also and own 49% of the business that we bought together 5 years ago. He works the business and I do all the bookkeeping and invoicing etc.
Now that we have separated he says that he is no longer prepared to take a basic wage + dividends but intends to put his wages up to £60k per year as this is his 'worth' in the business whereas I shall only get £12k per year as a part time bookkeeper (my worth).
If he manages to do this then the business will have little money left at the end of the year for any dividends to be paid. Therefore leaving my 49% worth nothing.
I am trying to get him to buy me out of the business so that he will have 100% of shares.
Can he put his wages up to what he considers to be the industry standard (oh and the fact that he is MD and runs the business) without my consent being a director and 49% shareholder?
I have spoken with my accountant and he has advised that he thinks that he can not. However, I am concerned that perhaps he may have been wrong. Any help would be much appreciated.
Many thanks
Can someone please answer a question for me?
My partner (not married) and I have recently separated, I am a director also and own 49% of the business that we bought together 5 years ago. He works the business and I do all the bookkeeping and invoicing etc.
Now that we have separated he says that he is no longer prepared to take a basic wage + dividends but intends to put his wages up to £60k per year as this is his 'worth' in the business whereas I shall only get £12k per year as a part time bookkeeper (my worth).
If he manages to do this then the business will have little money left at the end of the year for any dividends to be paid. Therefore leaving my 49% worth nothing.
I am trying to get him to buy me out of the business so that he will have 100% of shares.
Can he put his wages up to what he considers to be the industry standard (oh and the fact that he is MD and runs the business) without my consent being a director and 49% shareholder?
I have spoken with my accountant and he has advised that he thinks that he can not. However, I am concerned that perhaps he may have been wrong. Any help would be much appreciated.
Many thanks
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