- Original Poster
- #1
The legal position is that if you accept a cheque in payment, this is the same as accepting cash (unless and until it's returned unpaid): buyer has no further liability.
Where the buyer pays with their own cheque, it's all nice and simple: buyer has paid seller.
Now suppose buyer pays with a cheque made out by a third party, payable to seller, drawn on third party's own bank, which was given to the buyer by the third party for this purpose.
Who has paid seller?
(not a homework question - charity wishes to provide the deposit for beneficiary's lease, but can't give beneficiary cash to do so or this would be regulated lending. There's also a need to have rights under deposit protection scheme, and there is finnicky language about paying 'on behalf of' tenant.)
Where the buyer pays with their own cheque, it's all nice and simple: buyer has paid seller.
Now suppose buyer pays with a cheque made out by a third party, payable to seller, drawn on third party's own bank, which was given to the buyer by the third party for this purpose.
Who has paid seller?
(not a homework question - charity wishes to provide the deposit for beneficiary's lease, but can't give beneficiary cash to do so or this would be regulated lending. There's also a need to have rights under deposit protection scheme, and there is finnicky language about paying 'on behalf of' tenant.)
