IT Contract overseas

trying_to_survive

Free Member
Jul 14, 2015
164
5
Hi

I was wondering if a client is willing, which I have not proposed yet, Is there any reason why they can't pay a company overseas once the work is complete for an IT delivery? For example, say If company A registered in the UK and company B registered in Thailand and there is a mutual agreement between both parties that a invoice will only be raised by company B once the work is complete - Can this be done? What are the implications that company A should watch out for?

Also to add company B's employee is based in the UK and a British national but not getting paid for his services i.e, me. I am neither an owner or a director or hold any form of shares in Company B.

Many thanks
 

obscure

Free Member
Jan 18, 2008
3,370
879
The world
So in order to evade tax you want the money to be paid to an overseas company and you will pretend that you are not being paid for the work you do? The first problem I can see is that if you are working in the UK for an employer you would need to be paid at least National Minimum Wage.
 
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trying_to_survive

Free Member
Jul 14, 2015
164
5
Hi Thanks for your response. I am not on the payroll for Company B (sorry should have made the clearer in my original post even though I mentioned employee!) or in anyway related. However I do have debt to the directors of Company B and I thought instead of my company being paid in the UK it would be easier if I could work out a way of money changing hands between Company A in UK, to whom I will provide a service for, and Company B based overseas. Does it even matter if I am not related to Company B - surely the contract is between those two parties and I am there just to put a service? Is this any different to importing goods from abroad? I would have thought its the same as a customer placing an order to an overseas manufacturer and paying upon goods being delivered. Any thoughts are welcome. Obviously company B is liable for their own taxes in their home country.
 
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ethical PR

Free Member
  • Apr 20, 2009
    7,894
    1,770
    London
    No just get the company to pay you for your services to the UK company you own and then you can pay the money you owe to the Thailand company through your company (if it is a company debt).

    It is not the same as a customer placing an order with an overseas manufacturer. It would likely to be seen as tax fraud.
     
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