- Original Poster
- #1
Hi
I was wondering if a client is willing, which I have not proposed yet, Is there any reason why they can't pay a company overseas once the work is complete for an IT delivery? For example, say If company A registered in the UK and company B registered in Thailand and there is a mutual agreement between both parties that a invoice will only be raised by company B once the work is complete - Can this be done? What are the implications that company A should watch out for?
Also to add company B's employee is based in the UK and a British national but not getting paid for his services i.e, me. I am neither an owner or a director or hold any form of shares in Company B.
Many thanks
I was wondering if a client is willing, which I have not proposed yet, Is there any reason why they can't pay a company overseas once the work is complete for an IT delivery? For example, say If company A registered in the UK and company B registered in Thailand and there is a mutual agreement between both parties that a invoice will only be raised by company B once the work is complete - Can this be done? What are the implications that company A should watch out for?
Also to add company B's employee is based in the UK and a British national but not getting paid for his services i.e, me. I am neither an owner or a director or hold any form of shares in Company B.
Many thanks
