- Original Poster
- #1
Hi,
I have worked for my previous employer for over 6 years and recently got made redundant - 1 pool pick - highest paid in company (thats a whole new discussion) - wife due to give birth.
As you may rightfully understand, this had a massive strain on me which I had 2 days off sick with migraines. I'm a man whole rarely has days off Ill or otherwise, which as a "gentleman's agreement" have always been paid in full for a day off sick by my ex-employer, so has every other employee, even though there is absolutely nothing in my contract regarding sick pay.
After getting a third migraine, that day I went to the doctors and explained my situation and symptoms and without delay the lady gave me a sick note without hesitation.
After handing in the sick note, the moron actually asked if I'd freelance for them, in which I abruptly said no and walked out.
Within these 3 weeks off being off sick I had no contact with them at all which I though was odd as I thought some documentation would have been sent through the post but nothing was. On the final day, still without contact I sent a feel emails through to the HR department asking for a breakdown of final money owed and my P60 to be sent through. No reply.
So the next day I sent the same, incase emails were down or something but CC'ing the directors in too which I finally got a reply saying they need to recalculate this due to my sick note (surely 3 weeks was enough time for this).
I have now received a letter stating I owe them money for the 2 days off I had earlier that month as they had already paid me for them and I was off sick.
My question being can they just simply decide not to pay sick pay after its always been agreed to be paid and also can they withhold my P45 which it seems they are doing?
Regards
I have worked for my previous employer for over 6 years and recently got made redundant - 1 pool pick - highest paid in company (thats a whole new discussion) - wife due to give birth.
As you may rightfully understand, this had a massive strain on me which I had 2 days off sick with migraines. I'm a man whole rarely has days off Ill or otherwise, which as a "gentleman's agreement" have always been paid in full for a day off sick by my ex-employer, so has every other employee, even though there is absolutely nothing in my contract regarding sick pay.
After getting a third migraine, that day I went to the doctors and explained my situation and symptoms and without delay the lady gave me a sick note without hesitation.
After handing in the sick note, the moron actually asked if I'd freelance for them, in which I abruptly said no and walked out.
Within these 3 weeks off being off sick I had no contact with them at all which I though was odd as I thought some documentation would have been sent through the post but nothing was. On the final day, still without contact I sent a feel emails through to the HR department asking for a breakdown of final money owed and my P60 to be sent through. No reply.
So the next day I sent the same, incase emails were down or something but CC'ing the directors in too which I finally got a reply saying they need to recalculate this due to my sick note (surely 3 weeks was enough time for this).
I have now received a letter stating I owe them money for the 2 days off I had earlier that month as they had already paid me for them and I was off sick.
My question being can they just simply decide not to pay sick pay after its always been agreed to be paid and also can they withhold my P45 which it seems they are doing?
Regards
