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Newbie22
5th July 2010, 14:25
Hello All,

We have a customer in Argentina which is refusing to pay for some material we manufactured.

This was all the way back in November 2009 and this invoice went through our company accounts for y/e Dec 09.

We have invested in materials and labour in producing this material for them and the material is something we cannot sell on due the measurements etc. I have in front of me an official purchase order from them, technically committing themselves to the sale?

Where do I stand on this? Because of the purchase order is there some sort of legal implication? Assuming it goes in as a bad debt, I could offset against my corporation tax for this financial year..?

Thanks in advance! :D

consultant
5th July 2010, 20:23
Newbie,

there is little you can do, except go after them in Argentina - I do not hold out much luck on that!

I know it is now a rudimentary question, but why did you prepare an international orde (any order, in fact) without prepayment (as is the norm in international sales) or at least a deposit?

Batra Ventures UK Limited
5th July 2010, 21:36
I wouldnt start an order without deposit wherever the party is located. Now that the party is not in the UK, I dont think theres a lot you can do.